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Andrei Rodin's avatar

Kant's views of logic can be compatible with logical pluralism in some form. In your quote Kant describes his very loose concept of *general* logic. Kant's real contribution is his conception of *transcendental* logic, which is the logic of science or, more precisely, logic of mathematical physics à la Newton's Mechanics. Kant could buy the idea that logic of science varies from one scientific discipline to another and that logic can change along with progressive development of science.

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Anton Ayzenberg's avatar

We already discussed it elsewhere, but I would comment here once again. a=sqrt(2) and b=log_2(9) are the real numbers, for which the proof of irrationality is a school exercise, and a^b=3 is rational, again a simple constructive derivation. You don't need Liouville numbers or any fancy theory to constructively prove \exists a,b\in R : (a\notin Q and b\notin Q and a^b\in Q) - as stated.

I agree though that the assertion P="sqrt(2)^sqrt(2) is irrational" works as an example. But this is a different assertion. You provided a simple non-constructive proof, and constructive proof involves some theory (which may actually be non-constructive somewhere in its core though, - I am not a specialist in this field to claim there actually exists a constructive proof for P)

Sorry, I am a little bit pedantic about such things. As a former calculus teacher, I don't like it when examples refer to overcomplicated theories rather than clearly explain what they should explain.

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